Datasets:

rushankg
/

aibe-xxi-set-a

id int64	question string	choices list	answer string	answer_index int64	accepted_answers list	status string	subject string	subject_id int64
1	In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 gives a detailed procedure for fixing or revising minimum wages in respect of any scheduled employment. After considering the advice of the committees appointed, and all representations ...	[ "Both Conclusions I and II follow", "Only Conclusion II follows", "Neither Conclusion I nor II follows", "Only Conclusion I follows" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Labour & Industrial Law	14
2	As per the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, what are one-sided agreements ?	[ "Unilateral contracts", "Quasi contracts", "Unfair trade practices", "Unconscionable" ]	C	2	[ "C", "D" ]	ok	Law of Tort incl. MV Act & Consumer Protection	15
3	Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the...	[ "(A) is false, but (R) is true.", "Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).", "(A) is true, but (R) is false.", "Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)." ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
4	Under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements in the context of constitutional amendments : I. Judicial review extends to constitutional amendments. II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24th April, 1973 remain open to scrutiny for violation of the basic structure. III. Parliament's amend...	[ "I, II and III", "I and II", "II and III", "I only" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
5	In execution proceedings governed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where property of the judgment-debtor is attached and a third party raises a claim asserting independent title, such claim :	[ "Shall be adjudicated by the executing court.", "Requires prior determination by the court which passed the decree.", "Must be decided by instituting a separate civil suit.", "Can be decided only after completion of execution proceedings." ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
6	Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, provides a summary legal remedy for the maintenance of spouses, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves ?	[ "Section 320", "Section 107", "Section 144", "Section 125" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
7	Under the law relating to land acquisition under the relevant laws in India, which of the following statements is not true ?	[ "All persons interested in the land in question shall appear personally before the Collector.", "A minimum notice period of 30 days is to be given to all the persons interested.", "The Collector shall publish the public notice on his website.", "Such interested persons may file objections within 6 months of t...	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Land Acquisition Act	18
8	Regarding the offence of 'Criminal Conspiracy' as defined under Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following statements is legally accurate ?	[ "The mere agreement between parties is sufficient to constitute the offence if the intended crime is punishable by death or rigorous imprisonment.", "A minimum of five persons must participate to satisfy the legal definition.", "A solitary individual's mere intention to commit a crime, even without an agreement...	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	IPC & Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita	2
9	Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the...	[ "Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).", "(A) is true, but (R) is false.", "(A) is false, but (R) is true.", "Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)." ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Labour & Industrial Law	14
10	Which of the following is included in the Central Government's power under Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?	[ "Collection and dissemination of information in respect of matters relating to environmental pollution", "Laying down standards for the quality of the environment in its various aspects", "Planning and execution of a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution", ...	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Environmental Law	12
11	Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, the term 'electronic record' includes which of the following ? I. Data stored in digital form II. Image or sound stored or transmitted electronically III. Information generated in microfilm or computer-generated microfiche IV. Information recorded only on paper without electr...	[ "I, II and III", "II, III and IV", "I, II, III and IV", "I and II" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Cyber Law	13
12	In the context of the Constitution of India, a pension scheme differentiates between employees retiring before and after a specified cut-off date. Those excluded challenge the classification as arbitrary. The constitutional issue would primarily attract :	[ "Legislative competence of the State", "Doctrine of eclipse", "Doctrine of severability", "Article 14 and the principle of classification" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Labour & Industrial Law	14
13	The Supreme Court of India in Harish Chandra Tiwari v. Baiju, (2002) 2 SCC 67, while considering the appropriate punishment for misappropriation of a client's money by an advocate, held that :	[ "A monetary penalty equal to double the amount misappropriated is the appropriate sanction under the Act.", "Reprimand is the appropriate punishment for a first-time misappropriation, since removal from the roll would be disproportionate.", "Suspension from practice for a period of five years is the standard sa...	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Professional Ethics & BCI Rules	10
14	A State Government plans to acquire 50 acres of Scheduled Tribes (ST) land for an industrial park. As per the applicable law, the following steps are proposed : (i) Preliminary notification (ii) Social Impact Assessment (SIA) (iii) Gram Sabha consultation/consent (iv) Final notification Which of the following statement...	[ "Final notification can be issued without Gram Sabha, with owner consent only.", "Gram Sabha is advisory only; consent is not needed for public projects.", "SIA and Gram Sabha consultation/consent are mandatory for ST land; acquisition can't proceed without consent.", "Final notification can come before SIA b...	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Land Acquisition Act	18
15	Under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which specific provision provides the legal definition for a 'Bailable Offence' ?	[ "Section 2(h)", "Section 2(x)", "Section 2(a)", "Section 2(c)" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
16	The Information Technology Act, 2000, distinguishes between civil liability and criminal liability in cases of misuse of computer resources. In which of the following situations would such conduct attract criminal punishment rather than mere compensation ?	[ "When the damage to computer resources exceeds a prescribed monetary limit", "When the affected party chooses to initiate criminal proceedings", "When access to a computer system is without permission, irrespective of intent", "When the act is done dishonestly or fraudulently in addition to unauthorised acces...	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Cyber Law	13
17	In accordance with the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a court, while examining pleadings, finds certain averments to be unnecessary and capable of prejudicing or delaying the fair trial, the court, in such a case, may :	[ "Strike out such pleadings at any stage of proceedings.", "Ignore such pleadings without passing any order.", "Direct amendment only after trial begins.", "Reject the plaint in entirety." ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
18	On which specific date did the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, officially come into force, replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?	[ "August 15, 2023", "January 1, 2024", "December 25, 2023", "July 1, 2024" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
19	Which is the landmark case which expanded the scope of Article 23 of the Constitution of India ?	[ "Glaxo Laboratories v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court, Meerut, (1984) 1 SCC 1", "Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, (1997) 6 SCC 241", "PUDR v. Union of India, (1982) 3 SCC 235", "M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu, (1996) 6 SCC 756" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Public Interest Litigation	8
20	The case of Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) is primarily associated with which of the following rights ?	[ "Right to emergency medical care", "Right to clean and healthy environment", "Right to speedy trial", "Right to life and personal liberty" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Public Interest Litigation	8
21	In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : The Bar Council of India derives its rule-making power from Section 49(1)(c) of the Advocates Act, 1961, which authorises it to frame rules governing professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates. Rule 20 frame...	[ "Neither Conclusion I nor II follows", "Both Conclusions I and II follow", "Only Conclusion II follows", "Only Conclusion I follows" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Professional Ethics & BCI Rules	10
22	Under the constitutional framework of India, the Supreme Court gradually relaxed the traditional rule of locus standi, thereby allowing public-spirited individuals to approach the Court for enforcement of fundamental rights of others. This development is most closely associated with :	[ "Judicial review of administrative action.", "The evolution of Public Interest Litigation.", "Expansion of writ jurisdiction under Article 226.", "Enforcement of fundamental rights through individual petitions alone." ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Public Interest Litigation	8
23	Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit is instituted against a person who is subsequently found to have been wrongly impleaded as a defendant, the court may :	[ "Return the plaint on the ground of mis-joinder of parties.", "Dismiss the suit as not maintainable.", "Direct the plaintiff to institute a fresh suit.", "Permit substitution or addition of the proper defendant." ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
24	The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not applicable in which case ?	[ "Arbitral Tribunal", "National Company Law Tribunal", "National Green Tribunal", "Income Tax Appellate Tribunal" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam	5
25	Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, 'Forfeiture of Property' is listed as a punishment. In which specific case is this most commonly applied ?	[ "Organized Crime (Section 111)", "Offences involving simple hurt or minor physical injury", "Instances of minor or petty theft", "Cases of rash or negligent driving" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	IPC & Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita	2
26	Which of the following statements is not an example of the eggshell skull rule as per the law of torts ?	[ "Nervous shock cases are also consistent with this principle. The rule is that if injury from nervous shock is reasonably foreseeable to an ordinarily strong-nerved person situated in the position of the claimant, the defendant is liable for the full extent of the shock.", "A boy kicked another from across the ai...	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Law of Tort incl. MV Act & Consumer Protection	15
27	Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement I : Ossification test is the final test to analyze bone fusion for estimating the age of a juvenile as per law. Statement II : Statutory documents like a birth certificate will be given precedence to determine the juvenile. In the context of the abo...	[ "Both Statements I and II are true", "Only Statement I is true", "Both Statements I and II are false", "Only Statement II is true" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam	5
28	Under constitutional jurisprudence in India, repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances without placing them before the Legislature was described by the Supreme Court as a "fraud on the Constitution" in which decision ?	[ "Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar, (2017) 3 SCC 1", "R.C. Cooper v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 564", "Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 1974 SC 2192", "D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
29	Pursuant to the definition provided in Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following constitutes an essential element of the offence of 'Theft' ?	[ "The requirement that the property must be removed from a public location exclusively", "The unauthorized movement of immovable property without the owner's consent", "The employment of physical force or criminal violence against a person", "The movement of movable property out of a person's possession withou...	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	IPC & Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita	2
30	Whether a landowner who enters into a Joint Development Agreement with a builder, contributing land in exchange for 50% of the developed property and a monetary deposit can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 alleging construction defects and delay ? Which of the following statements is most accura...	[ "The landowner is a consumer unless profit motive is proven.", "The landowner is a consumer as he did not construct himself.", "The landowner is not a consumer as the transaction constitutes a commercial joint venture.", "The landowner is a consumer if defects exist, irrespective of the nature of the transact...	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Law of Tort incl. MV Act & Consumer Protection	15
31	Under Rule 8 of the Standards of Professional Conduct and Etiquette framed by the Bar Council of India, an advocate is prohibited from appearing before any court, tribunal or authority for or against an organisation or institution of which he is a member of its :	[ "Executive Committee", "General Body", "Sub-Committee", "Advisory Committee" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Professional Ethics & BCI Rules	10
32	A Magistrate of the Second Class passes a sentence of one month's imprisonment. The accused wants to appeal. Based on the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which of the following is true ?	[ "The accused is entitled to file an appeal before the Court of Session.", "An appeal lies only if a fine was also imposed.", "The accused may prefer an appeal directly to the High Court.", "No appeal is maintainable in this specific instance." ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
33	Under the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936, for what duration can maintenance be awarded ?	[ "For a fixed term not exceeding ten years", "For a maximum of five years only", "For a period determined solely by the Registrar", "For a term not exceeding the life of the plaintiff" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Family Law	7
34	Under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the maximum fine that may be imposed for printing or publishing matter in contravention of provisions relating to in-camera proceedings ?	[ "Fine up to five thousand rupees", "Fine up to two thousand rupees", "Fine up to five hundred rupees", "Fine up to one thousand rupees" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Family Law	7
35	Under the provisions of Section 362 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following is not a mandatory legal requirement (ingredient) to constitute the offence of 'Abduction' ?	[ "Compelling or inducing a person to move from one place to another", "The employment of physical force or the use of deceitful means", "The classification of the act as a \"continuing offence\"", "The person abducted must be a minor" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	IPC & Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita	2
36	Under the Constitution of India, Parliament enacts legislation to implement India's obligations under an international environmental agreement. The subject ordinarily falls within the State List and no resolution under Article 252 has been passed. The source of Parliament's competence would be :	[ "Article 252", "Article 249", "Article 253", "Article 250" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
37	Read the following statements and choose the correct option in the light of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. A dispute arises regarding jurisdiction of the arbitral tribunal. Statement I : The arbitral tribunal may rule on its own jurisdiction. Statement II : A plea that the tribunal lacks jurisdiction shall...	[ "Both Statements I and II are true", "Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true", "Only Statement I is true", "Only Statement II is true" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Alternative Dispute Redressal incl. Arbitration Act	6
38	Under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, what is now a mandatory requirement for the process of search and seizure conducted by the police ?	[ "The presence of a Judicial Magistrate during the search", "The documentation of the entire search and seizure process via audio-video electronic recording", "The presence of at least five local residents as independent witnesses", "The acquisition of a signed written confession from the occupant of the premi...	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
39	Under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a decree is passed against multiple defendants, one of whom was not served with summons and had no opportunity to contest, such a defendant may seek relief :	[ "By applying for setting aside the ex-parte decree.", "Only by filing a separate suit.", "Only through an appeal against decree.", "Only through review before the same court." ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
40	In Roman jurisprudence, the concept similar to the Rule of Law was referred to as :	[ "Jus Gentium", "Jus Naturale", "Lex Regia", "Jus Civile" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
41	According to Section 10(37), of the Income-tax Act, 1961, compensation is received by an individual on compulsory acquisition of agricultural land which had been used for agricultural purposes by him prior to acquisition. What is the correct legal position ?	[ "It is always taxable under the Act.", "It is taxable only if it exceeds a prescribed limit.", "It is taxable as business income.", "It is exempt, subject to fulfilment of prescribed conditions." ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Law related to Taxation	16
42	Under the scheme of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where proceedings are pending before a competent civil court, and an application is made seeking transfer of the case from one district to another district within the state, such transfer may be ordered :	[ "Only upon agreement between the parties.", "Only by the court in which the suit is pending.", "Only after conclusion of trial.", "By the High Court." ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
43	Ramesh's job contract with M/s XYZ bars him from joining any rival software firm in India for three years post-resignation. But after resigning within three years, he joins a competitor. XYZ company filed a suit to enforce the restrictive clause. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what is the legal position ?	[ "Valid – three years is a reasonable period.", "Void – restrains lawful profession after employment ends.", "Valid – Ramesh agreed voluntarily.", "Valid – protects the employer's business interest." ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act	17
44	A contracts with B to construct a cold storage facility for ₹ 50 lakh within 6 months. After the expiry of the time period, B fails to perform the contract. A immediately hires C to complete the construction at ₹ 60 lakh and later files a suit against B claiming ₹ 10 lakh as the additional cost incurred. Which of the f...	[ "A must sue only for damages and not substituted performance.", "A can recover ₹ 10 lakh because B breached the contract.", "A cannot recover the cost because A did not give B prior notice.", "A can recover only if the court first declares B guilty of breach." ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act	17
45	The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, has introduced a specific timeframe for the delivery of a judgment after the conclusion of arguments. What is that timeframe ?	[ "Within a strict period of 15 days", "Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days)", "Within 90 days, provided the reasons for delay are recorded", "Within 60 days from the date of reserving the order" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
46	The term "Public Interest Litigation (PIL)" was first used by :	[ "Justice P.N. Bhagwati", "Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer", "Prof. Upendra Baxi", "Prof. Abram Chayes" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Public Interest Litigation	8
47	In which of the following cases did Lord Wright observe that "the incalculable value of habeas corpus is that it enables the immediate determination of the applicant's freedom" ?	[ "Attorney General for Hong Kong v. Ng Yuen Shiu (1983) 2 AC 629", "Attorney General for New South Wales v. Trethowan (1932) AC 526", "Greene v. Secretary of State for Home Affairs (1942) AC 284", "Bugdaycay v. Secretary of State for the Home Department (1987) AC 514" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
48	Under the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, what is the current range of punishments available to a court for the offence of 'Defamation' ?	[ "Simple imprisonment, or fine, or both, or Community Service", "Rigorous imprisonment for 5 years", "Only a fine", "Only an apology in open court" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	IPC & Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita	2
49	Under the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872, between which hours must a marriage generally be solemnized ?	[ "Between five in the morning and six in the evening", "Between six in the morning and seven in the evening", "Between seven in the morning and eight in the evening", "Between six in the morning and nine in the evening" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Family Law	7
50	Which of the following statements are correct with reference to withdrawal and abandonment of suits under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 ? I. A plaintiff may withdraw or abandon a suit subject to the provisions of law. II. Institution of a fresh suit on the same cause of action requires permission of the court. III....	[ "I, III and IV", "I, II, III and IV", "II, III and IV", "I, II and III" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
51	According to Section 25(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the respondent fails to submit his statement of defence without sufficient cause, the arbitral tribunal shall :	[ "Continue the proceedings without treating such failure as admission.", "Proceed to decide the dispute treating the claimant's case as uncontroverted.", "Terminate the proceedings.", "Treat the claimant's allegations as admitted." ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Alternative Dispute Redressal incl. Arbitration Act	6
52	Which of the following innovative penal measures has been officially incorporated into the sentencing framework under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 ?	[ "Compulsory forfeiture of ancestral property", "Community Service", "Solitary confinement", "Life imprisonment without the possibility of parole" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	IPC & Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita	2
53	Under the scheme of the Constitution of India, once a Proclamation under Article 352 is in operation, Parliament may legislate on matters in the State List by virtue of :	[ "Article 356", "Article 249", "Article 250", "Article 360" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
54	A, an 18-year-old adult of sound mind, executes a written instrument in favour of B stating, "I promise to pay B ₹ 75,000 on 1st April next year." A is fully competent, has signed the note, and the instrument contains all essential elements of a promissory note. B sues A for recovery after 1st April when A defaults. Ex...	[ "The promissory note is valid only if a third party signs as witness.", "The promissory note is valid; A is liable to pay B.", "The promissory note is void because it does not mention the consideration.", "The promissory note is voidable at A's option since A is only 18 years of age." ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act	17
55	The adoption of an Ombudsman-type institution in India was first recommended by which of the following ?	[ "Administrative Reforms Commission, 2005", "Santhanam Committee, 1964", "Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966", "India Against Corruption Movement, 2011" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Administration Law	9
56	Which of the following options correctly states the composition of a Disciplinary Committee of a Bar Council as prescribed under Section 9(1) of the Advocates Act, 1961 ?	[ "Five members — three elected by the Council and two co-opted senior advocates from outside the Council.", "Five members — all co-opted from advocates having not less than ten years' standing at the Bar.", "Three members — two elected from the Council's membership and one co-opted advocate possessing the prescr...	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Professional Ethics & BCI Rules	10
57	According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has abated due to failure to bring legal representatives on record within the prescribed time, the court may set aside such abatement if the plaintiff shows :	[ "That the defendant had knowledge of death.", "Sufficient cause for not making the application within time.", "That decree has not yet been passed.", "Error apparent on the face of record." ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
58	What is the year did the mandatory pre-fitment of High Security Registration Plates (HSRP) for all new vehicles come into effect under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 ?	[ "2019", "2018", "2024", "2023" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Law of Tort incl. MV Act & Consumer Protection	15
59	A, aged 80 years, executes a registered deed transferring a parcel of land to a trust with the conditions that, "The property shall be used forever for maintaining a public library and reading room for the residents of Village X. However, if at any time the property ceases to be used for this purpose, it shall revert t...	[ "The transfer is void because it violates the rule against perpetuity and the condition of accumulation beyond permissible limits.", "The entire transfer is void because the reversionary clause creates uncertainty and violates public policy.", "The transfer is valid as it falls within the exception for public b...	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act	17
60	Under the Uniform Civil Code Rules Uttarakhand, 2025, when is an application for declaration of legal heir(s) forwarded to the Registrar General ?	[ "After thirty days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action", "After ten days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action", "After fifteen days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action", "None of the above" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Family Law	7
61	Under Section 35B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a party fails to take a step required by the court on the date fixed, the court may :	[ "Grant adjournment as a matter of right.", "Impose costs as a precondition for allowing further prosecution.", "Dismiss the suit.", "Proceed with the suit without imposing any condition." ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
62	Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, stipulates that a police officer must produce a person arrested without a warrant before a Magistrate within a maximum period of 24 hours ?	[ "Section 41", "Section 164", "Section 51", "Section 57" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
63	During an India – Country X war, India declares X an enemy. A (an Indian citizen) enters into a contract to supply medicines to B (a citizen of X) via a neutral intermediary and a bank. Which of the following is most accurate under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 ?	[ "Void – trading with an enemy in war is prohibited and is against public policy.", "Valid – goods are humanitarian and payment is via a neutral country.", "Voidable – only the Government of India can cancel.", "Valid unless the Government expressly cancels." ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act	17
64	Under Article 143 of the Constitution of India, the President may seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance. The opinion rendered by the Court in such a reference is generally regarded as :	[ "Enforceable through contempt jurisdiction", "Advisory in nature and not strictly binding", "A binding precedent under Article 141", "Equivalent to a decree of the Court" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
65	A executes a document in favour of B stating, "I hereby sell my house to B for ₹ 5,00,000. If I repay the amount within 3 years, B shall retransfer the property to me; otherwise, the sale shall become absolute." The condition is included in the same document. A fails to repay within 3 years. B claims absolute ownership...	[ "It is a mortgage by conditional sale; B must seek foreclosure through court.", "The transaction is void for uncertainty.", "It is a lease with an option to repurchase.", "It is an outright sale; B becomes absolute owner automatically." ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act	17
66	Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, deals with "fast track merger". What is the time duration and the concerned authority for approval ?	[ "60-90 Days, Regional Director", "45-90 Days, NCLAT", "60-90 Days, NCLT", "1 Year, Regional Director" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Company Law	11
67	Judicial intervention in arbitration proceedings is limited under Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In which of the following situations may a court intervene ?	[ "When procedural irregularity is alleged without specific provision under the Act.", "When both parties request supervision of proceedings.", "When the court considers the award unjust on facts.", "When the Act expressly permits such intervention." ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Alternative Dispute Redressal incl. Arbitration Act	6
68	Ajeet Singh, a famous singer, enters into a contract with Yash Aditya Music Company agreeing to perform exclusively for them for 2 years and not to perform for any other company during that period. After one year, Ajeet Singh refuses to perform for Yash Aditya Music Company and begins performing for BR Chopra & Company...	[ "The injunction may be granted to enforce the negative covenant.", "The injunction must be refused because contracts of personal service cannot be enforced.", "The court must compel Ajeet Singh to sing for Yash Aditya Music Company.", "Only damages can be granted." ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act	17
69	Under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, 'Default Bail' (or statutory bail) is a right of the accused if the investigation is not completed :	[ "After a fixed period of 30 days for all types of offences.", "Upon the expiry of 120 days specifically for offences against the State.", "After 60 days or 90 days, contingent upon the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence.", "Immediately following the completion of the initial 15-day police custody."...	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
70	Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India forms the primary legislative basis for the Parliament enacting the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 ?	[ "Article 252", "Article 233", "Article 253", "None of the above" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Environmental Law	12
71	Under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, what condition applies for appointing a guardian for a married female minor ?	[ "The husband must be declared legally incompetent", "The husband must be considered unfit by the Court", "The parents must apply jointly for such appointment", "The husband must consent to such appointment" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Family Law	7
72	Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, within how many months from the date of marriage must dowry received before marriage be transferred to the woman ?	[ "Within six months", "Within seven months", "Within three months", "Within five months" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Family Law	7
73	An assessee pays a medical insurance premium for himself and his family and claims a deduction while computing total income. What is the correct position under the Income Tax Act, 1961 ?	[ "Deduction is not permitted in such cases", "Deduction is allowed subject to prescribed limits and conditions", "Deduction is allowed without any monetary limit", "Deduction is allowed only for senior citizens" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Law related to Taxation	16
74	Under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, in which of the following scenarios does the "Right of Private Defence of the Body" extend to the extent of voluntarily causing death to the assailant ?	[ "A simple assault committed without the use of a weapon", "A case of theft where the value of the stolen property exceeds ₹ 10,000", "An assault committed with the specific intention of kidnapping or abducting a person", "An act of criminal trespass occurring on open, vacant land" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	IPC & Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita	2
75	Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, if a police officer-in-charge determines that an investigation is not warranted because the case lacks sufficient gravity, they are legally obligated to notify the informant of this decision within :	[ "24 hours", "14 days", "7 days", "30 days" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
76	X takes a loan of ₹ 10,00,000 from Bank A. Y signs a contract as surety, promising to pay the bank if X defaults. After 3 months, Bank A agrees to reduce the interest rate and extends the repayment period by 6 months without informing Y. Subsequently, X defaults on the loan. Which of the following statements correctly ...	[ "Y is partially discharged from liability because Bank A's modification increased the risk to Y without his consent.", "Y is fully liable for the entire loan because a surety is always liable once the principal debtor defaults.", "Y is not liable at all because the principal debtor defaulted after the contract ...	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act	17
77	Which of the following does not fall under the framework of presumption under Section 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ?	[ "Conclusive proof", "Shall presume", "Unassailable proof", "May be" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam	5
78	Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the...	[ "(A) is false, but (R) is true.", "Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).", "(A) is true, but (R) is false.", "Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)." ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
79	Under the scheme of distribution of legislative powers in the Constitution of India, a subject which is not enumerated in either the State List or the Concurrent List falls within the residuary field of legislation. Such residuary power is vested in :	[ "The State Legislatures", "The Parliament", "The President of India", "The Supreme Court of India" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Constitutional Law	1
80	"The rules of natural justice were not confined to the narrow precincts of the prevailing definition of quasi-judicial functions." This principle was laid down in which case ?	[ "Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) A.C. 40", "Conway v. Rimmer (1968) A.C. 910", "Maradana Mosque Trustees v. Mahmud (1967) (1) A.C. 13", "A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India AIR 1970 SC 150" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Administration Law	9
81	"Administrative law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action." This definition was given by :	[ "Ivor Jennings", "K.C. Davis", "A.V. Dicey", "H.W.R. Wade" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Administration Law	9
82	The five Golden Principles with respect to Circumstantial Evidence were laid down in which Supreme Court Judgment ?	[ "Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra, 1984 AIR 1622", "Dudh Nath Pandey v. State of U.P., 1981 SCC (2) 166", "Vasa Chandrasekhar Rao v. Ponna Satyanarayana & Anr., 2000 AIR SC 2138", "Dr. Sunil Clifford Daniel v. State of Punjab (2012) 11 SCC 205" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam	5
83	According to Section 20 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties have not agreed on the place of arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall determine it having regard to :	[ "Place where the contract was executed.", "Circumstances of the case, including the convenience of the parties.", "Jurisdiction of the civil court alone.", "Location of subject matter of dispute." ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Alternative Dispute Redressal incl. Arbitration Act	6
84	Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, what is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for giving or taking dowry ?	[ "Not less than ten years", "Not less than five years", "Not less than three years", "Not less than seven years" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Family Law	7
85	Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the...	[ "Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).", "(A) is true, but (R) is false.", "(A) is false, but (R) is true.", "Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)." ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
86	Under which specific provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, has the definition of a 'Terrorist Act' been formally integrated into India's general penal legislation for the first time ?	[ "Section 152", "Section 109", "Section 113", "Section 121" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	IPC & Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita	2
87	According to the provisions of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, an accused person intending to apply for 'Plea Bargaining' must do so within how many days following the formal framing of charges ?	[ "7 days", "15 days", "60 days", "30 days" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita	3
88	Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the...	[ "Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).", "(A) is false, but (R) is true.", "Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).", "(A) is true, but (R) is false." ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Law related to Taxation	16
89	Which of the following is not stated in Section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, with regard to a certificate to verify the authenticity of electronic evidence ?	[ "Signed by both the person in charge of the computer or communication device and an expert, with the certificate adhering to the format prescribed in the Adhiniyam's Schedule.", "The form specified in the Schedule requires that electronic evidence be accompanied by a 'hash value'.", "Qualification of an expert....	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam	5
90	A mandatory PUC Certificate is provided under which Section and Rule ?	[ "Section 120(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 122 and 123 of the Centre Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989", "Section 190(2) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 115 and 116 of the Centre Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989", "Section 160(1) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 109 and 110 of the Centre Mo...	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Law of Tort incl. MV Act & Consumer Protection	15
91	Under the Patents Act, 1970, a patent is granted to an inventor in India. Which of the following correctly reflects a limitation on the patentee's rights under the law ?	[ "The patentee loses all rights once the invention is used by the Government", "The Government may use the invention for its own purposes without the consent of the patentee", "The invention cannot be used by the Government without permission", "The patent becomes void if used by a government authority" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Intellectual Property Laws	19
92	What do you mean by 'onus probandi' ?	[ "'Burden of proof' which places the responsibility on the party making an affirmative claim to substantiate it with evidence.", "\"The fact to be proved\" or the \"ultimate fact\" that needs to be established in a legal case, such as the core elements of a crime or a cause of action.", "The prosecution in a cri...	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam	5
93	In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : Allegations have been made by the Minority Shareholders that ABC's promoters sold the optionally convertible preference shares and redeemable preference shares to a trust controlled by ABC's promoters at prices significantly be...	[ "Neither Conclusion I nor II follows", "Both Conclusions I and II follow", "Only Conclusion II follows", "Only Conclusion I follows" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Company Law	11
94	According to Section 56(2)(x), of the Income-tax Act, 1961, if an individual receives a sum of money, without consideration, from a person other than a relative, and the amount exceeds the prescribed limit. What is the correct legal position ?	[ "It is fully exempt from tax.", "It is taxable only if received in cash.", "It is treated as a capital receipt and is not taxable.", "It is taxable under the head 'Income from Other Sources'." ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Law related to Taxation	16
95	Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Under the Copyright Act, 1957 : Statement I : In the case of a posthumous literary work, copyright subsists for sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the work is first published. Statement II : For such works, pu...	[ "Both Statements I and II are false", "Only Statement II is true", "Both Statements I and II are true", "Only Statement I is true" ]	C	2	[ "C" ]	ok	Intellectual Property Laws	19
96	Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?	[ "The requirement of a certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (\"Evidence Act\"), is a condition precedent to the admissibility of an electronic record in evidence.", "Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020) 7 SCC 1 – landmark judgment stands as the latest interpre...	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam	5
97	Which of the following is not included in "The Industrial Relations Code, 2020" ?	[ "Trade Unions Act, 1926", "Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (IDR Act)", "Industrial Disputes Act, 1947", "Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946" ]	B	1	[ "B" ]	ok	Labour & Industrial Law	14
98	Which of the following is not a document as per the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ?	[ "Caricature", "Map", "Inscription", "Private papers" ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam	5
99	As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the plaintiff in a civil suit fails to pay the requisite court fee or postal charges for service of summons within the time permitted by the court, the court may :	[ "Stay the proceedings until service is effected.", "Proceed to decide the suit on merits.", "Return the plaint for fresh presentation.", "Dismiss the suit." ]	D	3	[ "D" ]	ok	Code of Civil Procedure	4
100	Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which situation makes the consent of a wife unnecessary for adoption ?	[ "She has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion.", "She refuses consent due to personal disagreement.", "She is living separately without legal separation.", "None of the above" ]	A	0	[ "A" ]	ok	Family Law	7

AIBE 16–21 MCQ Benchmark

All 100 multiple-choice questions from each of the last six All India Bar Examinations (AIBE XVI–XXI, 2021–2026), as six configs of one dataset, each paired with the most authoritative answer key available and labeled with the same official 19-subject BCI syllabus taxonomy.

Config	Exam	Held	Set	Question source	Answer key	Withdrawn	Multi-answer
`aibe16`	AIBE XVI	Oct 2021	C	Delhi Law Academy compilation	DLA 4-set key table (no official copy online)	5	—
`aibe17`	AIBE XVII	Feb 2023	C	Delhi Law Academy compilation	Official BCI revised key	2	—
`aibe18`	AIBE XVIII	Dec 2023	A	DLA compilation (+1 question recovered from a Set B copy)	Official BCI final key	7	—
`aibe19`	AIBE XIX	Dec 2024	A	DLA compilation (+options for 3 questions from a second copy)	Official BCI final key	7	Q75: A,C
`aibe20`	AIBE XX	Dec 2025	A	Third-party recompilation	Official BCI final key	5	Q54: A,B; Q91: A,B
`aibe21`	AIBE XXI	7 Jun 2026	A	Official BCI question paper PDF	Official BCI final key	0	Q2: C,D

Schema (identical across configs)

Field	Type	Description
`id`	int	Question number (1–100) as printed in the given set
`question`	string	Full question stem
`choices`	list[string]	The four options in printed order (A)–(D); sources using (1)–(4) were mapped positionally
`answer`	string	Correct option letter (first accepted); `""` for withdrawn questions
`answer_index`	int	0-based index of `answer`; `-1` for withdrawn
`accepted_answers`	list[string]	All accepted letters; `[]` for withdrawn
`status`	string	`"ok"` or `"withdrawn"` (question withdrawn by BCI in the final key / deleted)
`subject`	string	One of the 19 official BCI syllabus subjects
`subject_id`	int	Serial number (1–19) in the official syllabus table

Evaluating an LLM

from datasets import load_dataset

for exam in ["aibe16", "aibe17", "aibe18", "aibe19", "aibe20", "aibe21"]:
    ds = load_dataset("rushankg/aibe-xxi-set-a", exam, split="test")
    scored = ds.filter(lambda r: r["status"] == "ok")   # exclude withdrawn
    # prompt with question + lettered choices; grade: predicted letter in accepted_answers

Scoring rules: (1) filter to status == "ok" — withdrawn questions have no official answer and were excluded from human scoring too; (2) grade against accepted_answers, not answer — four questions across the corpus accept two options. Scored question counts: aibe16 = 95, aibe17 = 98, aibe18 = 93, aibe19 = 93, aibe20 = 95, aibe21 = 100 (574 total).

Answer-key provenance and cross-checks

Keys were taken from the final/revised official BCI keys (downloaded from allindiabarexamination.com) for AIBE 17, 18, 19, 20, 21. Cross-checks performed:

AIBE 18: the coaching-compiled QP's embedded key agrees with the official provisional key on 98/100 (its 2 disagreements are typos — verified by content). The official final key (used here) withdrew 7 questions and changed 5 answers vs. provisional. A separately sourced Set B paper was mapped question-by-question onto Set A (99/99 matched by text similarity); on all 92 mappable pairs with parsed keys, the official Set A and Set B final keys assign the same answer — validating question parsing, option-order invariance, and both keys.
AIBE 19: two independent question-paper copies agree on question identity and numbering; the full-text copy is used (the other copy abbreviates long scenario stems and supplied options for 3 questions its counterpart lacked). Official final key used; vs. the official provisional key: 7 withdrawn, 2 answers changed, 1 became multi-answer (Q75 → A&C).
AIBE 16: no official key survives online. The compilation's 4-set key table was used; the printed paper was identified as Set C by probing 10 questions with unambiguous statutory answers (10/10 agreement with the Set C column vs. 4/10 for the other three sets).
AIBE 21: official question paper and official final key (see per-exam details above); Q2 accepts C and D.

Subject labels (unified taxonomy)

Every question in every config is labeled with the same 19 subjects from the official BCI syllabus (the syllabus table — subjects and indicative per-subject question counts — is verbatim-identical for AIBE XVI through XXI; the per-year syllabus PDFs are included under source/).

Labeling methodology: (1) statute/doctrine named in the stem (mechanical for ~90%); (2) manual adjudication of boundary questions; (3) structural validation — the AIBE 18 and 19 Set A papers turn out to present questions in 19 contiguous subject blocks in exact syllabus order with exact syllabus counts, which independently confirms every label in those configs; (4) for AIBE 21, blueprint-constrained annotation as documented in the previous card revision.

Actual per-subject counts vs. the syllabus blueprint (10, 8, 10, 10, 8, 4, 8, 4, 3, 4, 2, 2, 2, 4, 5, 4, 8, 2, 2 for subjects 1–19):

aibe18, aibe19, aibe21: match the blueprint exactly.
aibe16: Constitutional 11, CrPC 11, CPC 11, Evidence 7, PIL 3, Contract-group 7 (±1 in six subjects; shuffled paper, labels are content-based).
aibe17: Constitutional 12, PIL 3, Administration 2, Ethics 5, Tort-group 4.
aibe20: Constitutional 15, PIL 2, CrPC 7 — the AIBE XX paper was noticeably constitution-heavy.

Deviations are reported honestly rather than force-fitted: for shuffled papers there is no structural evidence that the setter followed the blueprint exactly, so labels follow doctrinal content, with the blueprint used only to break genuine ties. Subject labels are the dataset author's annotation, not published by the BCI.

Known text-quality caveats

aibe16/aibe17/aibe18/aibe19 question text comes from coaching-institute compilations (Delhi Law Academy), not official BCI PDFs (BCI does not publish past papers). Some typos from those sources are preserved (e.g., "actus notfacitreum" in aibe16 Q25); option texts occasionally truncate trailing words. aibe20 comes from a third-party recompilation typeset in LaTeX. aibe21 is verbatim from the official BCI paper.
aibe18 Q44 was missing from the primary source and was recovered from a Set B copy of the same exam (same question pool; answer letter verified consistent across both official set keys).

Provenance files

source/ contains the original question-paper PDFs, all official answer-key PDFs (provisional and final where both exist), and the six per-year official syllabus PDFs.

License / usage

Exam questions and answer keys are © Bar Council of India (BCI). This dataset compiles them for non-commercial research and LLM benchmarking. Question text for AIBE 16–19 derives from publicly circulated compilations by Delhi Law Academy (delhilawacademy.com); AIBE 18 Set B copy via Zollege; official answer keys and the AIBE 21 paper from allindiabarexamination.com. No affiliation with or endorsement by the BCI is implied. If you are a rights holder and want content removed, open a discussion on this repo and it will be taken down.

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